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When are these quadratic forms surjective from $R^n$ to $R^n$?

代数几何 Math StackExchange 0 票 1 回答 54 浏览 提问者: mick 2026-06-11 21:10
multivariable-calculus algebraic-geometry polynomials systems-of-equations quadratic-forms

问题内容

Consider functions from $R^n$ to a subset of $R^n$.

So $f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = (y_1,y_2,...,y_n)$.

where $x_i,y_i$ are all real.

More specific consider

$$f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = (Q_1(x_1,x_2,...,x_n),Q_2(x_1,x_2,...,x_n),...,Q_n(x_1,x_2,...,x_n))$$

where the $Q_i$ are all Quadratic forms.

Even more specific :

The $Q_i$ are distinct and of the type

$$ Q_i(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = \sum_{u=1}^{u=n} \sum_{v=1}^{v=n} a_{(u,v,i)} x_u x_v $$

and

$a_{(u,v,i)}$ belongs to the set ${-1,0,1}$.

(not to be confused with ternary quadratic forms what usually means using $3$ variables)

We want to know how to solve the equation $f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = (y_1,y_2,...,y_n)$ for a given set of reals $y_i$.

This is essentially the functional inverse or equivalently solving a given systems of quadratic forms over the reals.

Now this might be a difficult problem so we end up with the more general question, is there always a solution for a given $f$ and a set of reals $y_i$ ?

Or in other words :

When is for a given $f$ like above

$$R^n \to (f) \to R^n $$

a surjective function ?

回答 (1)

Niki_fx 1 票 2026-06-11 22:19 原文

Let $F(x)=(Q_1(x),\dots,Q_n(x))$, where the $Q_i$ are homogeneous quadratic forms on ${\bf R}^n$.

The main observation is that $F(tx)=t^2F(x)$ for every real $t$. So if $x\ne 0$ and $x=ru$, with $r=|x|$ and $u\in S^{n-1}$, then $F(x)=r^2F(u)$.

Hence the whole image of $F$ is determined by what happens on the unit sphere. More precisely, $F({\bf R}^n)$ is obtained from $F(S^{n-1})$ by multiplying by all nonnegative scalars.

Therefore $F$ is surjective onto ${\bf R}^n$ exactly when $F(S^{n-1})$ meets every ray starting at the origin. Equivalently, the set of directions $F(u)/|F(u)|$, for $u\in S^{n-1}$ and $F(u)\ne 0$, has to be the whole sphere $S^{n-1}$.

[Edit] This is the natural criterion for surjectivity in this setting. A minor clarification: $F(-x)=F(x)$ only shows that the map is not injective in general. It does not rule out surjectivity.